General Class License Questions

Questions for discussion on the Tuesday evening coffee shop net with Carson WQ1I

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Questions for the net on 3/16/21
Note: Correct answers are in bold
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Question 1

On which of the following bands is a General Class license holder granted all amateur frequency privileges?

  • 160, 80, 40, and 10 meters
  • 160, 30, 17, 15, 12, and 10 meters
  • 60, 20, 17, and 12 meters
  • 160, 60, 30, 17, 12, and 10 meters

Question 2

What is the maximum height above ground to which an antenna structure may be erected without requiring notification to the FAA and registration with the FCC, provided it is not at or near a public use airport?

  • 300 feet
  • 100 feet
  • 50 feet
  • 200 feet

Question 3

What is the maximum transmitting power an amateur station may use on 10.140 MHz?

  • 1500 watts PEP output
  • 1000 watts PEP output
  • 200 watts PEP output
  • 2000 watts PEP output

Question 4

Which of the following would disqualify a third party from participating in stating a message over an amateur station?

  • The third party is not a U.S. citizen
  • The third party’s amateur license has been revoked and not reinstated
  • The third party is a licensed amateur
  • The third party is speaking in a language other than English

Question 5

Which sideband is most commonly used for voice communications on frequencies of 14 MHz or higher?

  • Vestigial sideband
  • Double sideband
  • Upper sideband
  • Lower sideband

Question 6

Which of the following is true concerning access to frequencies in non-emergency situations?

  • Except during FCC declared emergencies, no one has priority access to frequencies
  • QSO’s in process always have priority
  • Nets always have priority
  • Contest operations must always yield to non-contest use of frequencies

Question 7

Which of the following describes full break-in telegraphy (QSK)?

  • Breaking stations send the Morse code prosign BK
  • Automatic keyers are used to send Morse code instead of hand keys
  • An operator must activate a manual send/receive switch before and after every transmission
  • Transmitting stations can receive between code characters and elements

Question 8

What is the Amateur Auxiliary to the FCC?

  • Amateur volunteers who conduct amateur licensing examinations
  • Amateur volunteers who conduct frequency coordination for amateur VHF repeaters
  • Amateur volunteers who use their station equipment to help civil defense organizations in times  of emergency
  • Amateur volunteers who are formally enlisted to monitor the airwaves for rules violations

Question 9

Which mode is normally used when sending an RTTY signal via AFSK with an SSB transmitter?

  • CW
  • LSB
  • DSB
  • USB

Question 10

How might a sky-wave signal sound if it arrives at your receiver by both short path and long path  propagation?

  • Periodic fading approximately every 10 seconds
  • A well-defined echo might be heard
  • Signal strength increased by 3 dB
  • The signal might be cancelled causing severe attenuation

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Questions for the net on 3/23/21
Note: Correct answers are in bold
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Question 11 – D05 
What is an advantage of vertical stacking of horizontally polarized Yagi antennas?

A. It allows quick selection of vertical or horizontal polarization
B. It allows simultaneous vertical and horizontal polarization
C. It narrows the main lobe in azimuth
D. It narrows the main lobe in elevation

Question 12 – B07
What does LUF stand for?

A. The Lowest Usable Frequency for communications between two points
B. The Lowest Usable Frequency during a 24-hour period
C. The Longest Universal Function for communications between two points
D. The Longest Universal Function during a 24-hour period

Question 13 – B03
Which of the following is the best instrument to use when checking the keying waveform of a CW transmitter?

A. A wavemeter
B. An oscilloscope
C. A sidetone monitor
D. A field strength meter

Question 14 – B12
What problem can occur when making measurements on an antenna system with an antenna analyzer?

A. Permanent damage to the analyzer may occur if it is operated into a high SWR
B. Connecting the analyzer to an antenna can cause it to absorb harmonics
C. The analyzer can be damaged if measurements outside the ham bands are attempted
D. Strong signals from nearby transmitters can affect the accuracy of measurements

Question 15 – A15
What portion of the 10-meter band is available for repeater use? 

A. The portion between 28.3 MHz and 28.5 MHz
B. The entire band
C. The portion between 28.1 MHz and 28.2 MHz
D. The portion above 29.5 MHz

Question 16 – B14
What is an instance in which the use of an instrument with analog readout may be preferred over an instrument with digital readout?

A. When adjusting tuned circuits
B. When high precision is desired
C. When testing logic circuits
D. When measuring the frequency of an oscillator

Question 17 – A02
Which of the following components are used in a power supply filter network?

A. Diodes
B. Transformers and transducers
C. Capacitors and inductors
D. Quartz crystals

Question 18 – C09
What does the Q signal “QSL” mean?

A. We have already confirmed by card
B. Send slower
C. We have worked before
D. I acknowledge receipt

Question 19 – A01
What is the purpose of the “notch filter” found on many HF transceivers?

A. To eliminate receiver interference from impulse noise sources
B. To restrict the transmitter voice bandwidth
C. To reduce interference from carriers in the receiver passband
D. To enhance the reception of a specific frequency on a crowded band

Question 20 – A07
At what point in the solar cycle does the 20-meter band usually support worldwide propagation during daylight hours?

A. Only at the maximum point of the solar cycle
B. At any point in the solar cycle
C. Only at the minimum point of the solar cycle
D. At the summer solstic9

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Questions for the net on 3/30/21
Note: Correct answers are in bold
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Question 21
In what part of the 13-centimeter band may an amateur station communicate with non-licensed Wi-Fi stations?

A. Channels 42 through 45
B. Anywhere in the band
C. Channels 1 through 4
D. No part

Question 22
When must you add the special identifier “AG” after your call sign if you are a Technician class licensee and have a Certificate of Successful Completion of Examination (CSCE) for General class operator privileges, but the FCC has not yet posted your upgrade on its website?

A. A special identifier is not required if your General class license application has been filed with the FCC
B. Whenever you operate on any amateur frequency
C. Whenever you operate using General class frequency privileges
D. Whenever you operate using Technician frequency privileges

Question 23
Why is the conductor of the primary winding of many voltage step-up transformers larger in diameter than the conductor of the secondary winding?

A. To accommodate the higher current of the primary
B. To prevent parasitic oscillations due to resistive losses in the primary
C. To improve the coupling between the primary and secondary
D. To ensure that the volume of the primary winding is equal to the volume of the secondary winding

Question 24
Which of the following is an advantage of an electrolytic capacitor?

A. Much less leakage than any other type
B. High capacitance for a given volume
C. Inexpensive RF capacitor
D. Tight tolerance

Question 25
What is the effect of transmission line loss on SWR measured at the input to the line?

A. Transmission line loss does not affect the SWR measurement
B. The higher the transmission line loss, the more accurate the SWR measurement will be
C. The higher the transmission line loss, the more the SWR will read artificially high
D. The higher the transmission line loss, the more the SWR will read artificially low

Question 26
Which of these connector types is commonly used for audio signals in Amateur Radio stations?

A. RCA Phono
B. BNC
C. PL-259
D. Type N

Question 27
According the National Electrical Code, what is the minimum wire size that may be used safely for wiring with a 20 ampere circuit breaker?

A. AWG number 16
B. AWG number 8
C. AWG number 20
D. AWG number 12

Question 28
Why is the F2 region mainly responsible for the longest distance radio wave propagation?

A. Because of the Doppler effect
B. Because it is the densest ionospheric layer
C. Because of meteor trails at that level
D. Because it is the highest ionospheric region

Question 29
What is the best speed to use when answering a CQ in Morse code?

A. At the standard calling speed of 5 wpm
B. The fastest speed at which you are comfortable copying, but no slower than the CQ
C. At the standard calling speed of 10 wpm
D. The fastest speed at which you are comfortable copying, but no faster than the CQ

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Questions for 4/6/21 Tuesday PM net
Note: Correct answers are in bold
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Question 30
Which of the following can be a symptom of transmitted RF being picked up by an audio cable carrying AFSK data signals between a computer and a transceiver?

A. All these choices are correct
B. The transmitter signal is distorted
C. The VOX circuit does not un-key the transmitter
D. Frequent connection timeouts

Question 31
Which of the following describes the construction of a MOSFET?

A. The gate is formed by a back-biased junction
B. The source is formed by depositing metal on silicon
C. The gate is separated from the channel with a thin insulating layer
D. The source is separated from the drain by a thin insulating layer

Question 32
In the PACTOR protocol, what is meant by a NAK response to a transmitted packet? 

A. The receiver is requesting the packet be retransmitted
B. The entire file has been received correctly
C. The receiver is reporting the packet was received without error
D. The receiver is busy decoding the packet

Question 33
What happens when the impedance of an electrical load is equal to the output impedance of a power source, assuming both impedances are resistive?

A. The source can deliver maximum power to the load
B. No current can flow through the circuit
C. The electrical load is shorted
D. The source delivers minimum power to the load

Question 34
What is QRP operation?

A. Low-power transmit operation
B. Remote piloted model control
C. Traffic relay procedure net operation
D. Transmission using Quick Response Protocol

Question 35
Which of these choices should be observed when climbing a tower using a safety belt or harness?

A. All these choices are correct
B. Never lean back and rely on the belt alone to support your weight
C. Ensure that all heavy tools are securely fastened to the belt D-ring
D. Confirm that the belt is rated for the weight of the climber and that it is within its allowable service life

Question 36 C02
Which circuit is used to combine signals from the carrier oscillator and speech amplifier then send the result to the filter in some single sideband phone transmitters?

A. Discriminator
B. Detector
C. IF amplifier
D. Balanced modulator

Question 37 B13
Which of these connector types is commonly used for RF connections at frequencies up to 150 MHz?

A. Octal
B. RJ-11
C. PL-259
D. DB-25

Question 38 A08
Which of the following frequencies is within the General class portion of the 80-meter band?

A. 1855 kHz
B. 2560 kHz
C. 3560 kHz
D. 3650 kHz

Question 39 A05
Which of the following frequencies is in the General class portion of the 40-meter band in ITU Region 2?

A. 7.250 MHz
B. 7.500 MHz

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Questions for Tuesday April 13, 2021
Note: Correct answers are in bold
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Question 40 C04
Which of the following limitations apply to transmitter power on every amateur band?

A. Only the minimum power necessary to carry out the desired communications should be used
B. Power must be limited to 200 watts when using data transmissions
C. Power should be limited as necessary to avoid interference to another radio service on the frequency
D. Effective radiated power cannot exceed 1500 watts

Question 41 A03
On which of the following bands is image transmission prohibited?

A. 160 meters
B. 30 meters
C. 20 meters
D. 12 meters

Question 42 A06
Which of the following is characteristic of QPSK31?

A. It is sideband sensitive
B. Its encoding provides error correction
C. Its bandwidth is approximately the same as BPSK31
D. All these choices are correct

Question 43 B11
Which of the following is good practice for lightning protection grounds?

A. They must be bonded to all buried water and gas lines
B. Bends in ground wires must be made as close as possible to a right angle
C. Lightning grounds must be connected to all ungrounded wiring
D. They must be bonded together with all other grounds

Question 44 E11
On what bands may automatically controlled stations transmitting RTTY or data emissions communicate with other automatically controlled digital stations?

A. On any band segment where digital operation is permitted
B. Anywhere in the non-phone segments of the 10-meter or shorter wavelength bands
C. Only in the non-phone Extra Class segments of the bands
D. Anywhere in the 6-meter or shorter wavelength bands, and in limited segments of some of the HF bands

Question 45 B01
Which of the following is true concerning access to frequencies?

A. Nets always have priority
B. QSOs in progress always have priority
C. Except during emergencies, no amateur station has priority access to any frequency
D. Contest operations must always yield to non-contest use of frequencies

Question 46 E08
What is the maximum PEP output allowed for spread spectrum transmissions?

A. 100 milliwatts
B. 10 watts
C. 100 watts
D.1500 watts

Question 47 B04
What is the radiation pattern of a dipole antenna in free space in a plane containing the conductor?

A. It is a figure-eight at right angles to the antenna
B. It is a figure-eight off both ends of the antenna
C. It is a circle (equal radiation in all directions)
D. It has a pair of lobes on one side of the antenna and a single lobe on the other side

Question 48 G6A13
Why is the polarity of applied voltages important for polarized capacitors?
A. Incorrect polarity can cause the capacitor to short-circuit
B. Reverse voltages can destroy the dielectric layer of an electrolytic capacitor
C. The capacitor could overheat and explode
D. All these choices are correct

Question 49 G6A14
Which of the following is an advantage of ceramic capacitors as compared to other types of capacitors?
A. Tight tolerance
B. High stability
C. High capacitance for given volume
D. Comparatively low cost

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Questions for Tuesday April 20, 2021
Note: Correct answers are in bold
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Question 50 G6B01
What determines the performance of a ferrite core at different frequencies?
A. Its conductivity
B. Its thickness
C. The composition, or “mix,” of materials used
D. The ratio of outer diameter to inner diameter

Question 51 G6B02
What is meant by the term MMIC?
A. Multi-Megabyte Integrated Circuit
B. Monolithic Microwave Integrated Circuit
C. Military Manufactured Integrated Circuit
D. Mode Modulated Integrated Circuit

Question 52 G6B03
Which of the following is an advantage of CMOS integrated circuits compared to TTL integrated circuits?
A. Low power consumption
B. High power handling capability
C. Better suited for RF amplification
D.Better suited for power supply regulation

Question 53 G6A12
What is the primary purpose of a screen grid in a vacuum tube?
A. To reduce grid-to-plate capacitance
B. To increase efficiency
C. To increase the control grid resistance
D. To decrease plate resistance

Question 54 G5C03
Which of the following components increases the total resistance of a resistor?
A. A parallel resistor
B. A series resistor
C. A series capacitor
D. A parallel capacitor

Question 55 G5C04
What is the total resistance of three 100 ohm resistors in parallel?
A. 0.30 ohms
B. 0.33 ohms
C. 33.3 ohms
D. 300 ohms

Question 56 G5C05
If three equal value resistors in series produce 450 ohms, what is the value of each resistor?
A. 1500 ohms
B. 90 ohms
C. 150 ohms
D. 175 ohms

Question 57 G5C06
What is the RMS voltage across a 500-turn secondary winding in a transformer if the 2250-turn primary is connected to 120 VAC?
A. 2370 volts
B. 540 volts
C. 26.7 volts
D. 5.9 volts

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Questions for Tuesday April 27, 2021
Note: Correct answers are in bold
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Question  58 G5C07
What is the turns ratio of a transformer used to match an audio amplifier having 600 ohm output impedance to a speaker having 4 ohm impedance?
A. 12.2 to 1
B. 24.4 to 1
C. 150 to 1
D. 300 to 1

Question 59 G1C02 
What is the maximum transmitting power an amateur station may use on the 12-meter band?
A. 50 watts PEP output
B. 200 watts PEP output
C. 1500 watts PEP output
D. An effective radiated power equivalent to 100 watts from a half-wave dipole

Question 60 G1D02 
What license examinations may you administer when you are an accredited VE holding a General class operator license?
A. General and Technician
B. General only
C. Technician only
D. Amateur Extra, General, and Technician

Question 61 G1A10 
Which of the following frequencies is available to a control operator holding a General class license?
A. 28.020 MHz
B. 28.350 MHz
C. 28.550 MHz
D. All these choices are correct

Question 62 G1B08 
When choosing a transmitting frequency, what should you do to comply with good amateur practice?
A. Ensure that the frequency and mode selected are within your license class privileges
B. Follow generally accepted band plans agreed to by the Amateur Radio community
C. Monitor the frequency before transmitting
D. All these choices are correct

Question 63 G1C06 
What is the limit for transmitter power on the 1.8 MHz band?
A. 200 watts PEP output
B. 1000 watts PEP output
C. 1200 watts PEP output
D. 1500 watts PEP output

Question 64 G1D01 
Who may receive partial credit for the elements represented by an expired Amateur Radio license?
A. Any person who can demonstrate that they once held an FCC-issued General, Advanced, or Amateur Extra class license that was not revoked by the FCC
B. Anyone who held an FCC-issued Amateur Radio license that has been expired for not less than 5 years and not more than 15 years
C. Any person who previously held an amateur license issued by another country, but only if that country has a current reciprocal licensing agreement with the FCC
D. Only persons who once held an FCC issued Novice, Technician, or Technician Plus license

Question 65 G1E02 
When may a 10-meter repeater retransmit the 2-meter signal from a station that has a Technician class control operator?
A. Under no circumstances
B. Only if the station on 10-meters is operating under a Special Temporary Authorization allowing such retransmission
C. Only during an FCC-declared general state of communications emergency
D. Only if the 10-meter repeater control operator holds at least a General class license

Question 66 G1A11 
When General class licensees are not permitted to use the entire voice portion of a band, which portion of the voice segment is generally available to them?

A. The lower frequency end
B. The upper frequency end
C. The lower frequency end on frequencies below 7.3 MHz, and the upper end on frequencies above 14.150 MHz
D. The upper frequency end on frequencies below 7.3 MHz, and the lower end on frequencies above 14.150 MHz

Question 67 G1C07 
What is the maximum symbol rate permitted for RTTY or data emission transmission on the 20-meter band?

A. 56 kilobaud
B. 19.6 kilobaud
C. 1200 baud
D. 300 baud

Question 68 G2D03 

What skills learned during hidden transmitter hunts are of help to the Volunteer Monitoring Program?

A. Identification of out-of-band operation
B. Direction finding used to locate stations violating FCC rules
C. Identification of different call signs
D. Hunters have an opportunity to transmit on non-amateur frequencies

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Questions for Tuesday May 4, 2021
Note: Correct answers are in bold
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Question 69 G1A12  [97.303]
Which of the following applies when the FCC rules designate the Amateur Service as a secondary user on a band?
A. Amateur stations must record the call sign of the primary service station before operating on a frequency assigned to that
B. Amateur stations can use the band only during emergencies
C. Amateur stations can use the band only if they do not cause harmful interference to primary users
D. Amateur stations may only operate during specific hours of the day, while primary users are permitted 24-hour use of ~~

Question 70 G1B09 [97.203]
On what HF frequencies are automatically controlled beacons permitted?
A. On any frequency if power is less than 1 watt
B. On any frequency if transmissions are in Morse code
C. 21.08 MHz to 21.09 MHz
D. 28.20 MHz to 28.30 MHz

Question 71 G1A14 [97.301]
Which of the following may apply in areas under FCC jurisdiction outside of ITU Region 2?
A. Station identification may have to be in a language other than English
B. Morse code may not be permitted
C. Digital transmission may not be permitted
D. Frequency allocations may differ

Question 72 G1B10  [97.203]
What is the power limit for beacon stations?
A. 10 watts PEP output
B. 20 watts PEP output
C. 100 watts PEP output
D. 200 watts PEP output

Question 73 G1C10  [97.305 and 97.307(f)(4)]
What is the maximum symbol rate permitted for RTTY or data emission transmissions on the 10-meter band?
A. 56 kilobaud
B. 19.6 kilobaud
C. 1200 baud
D. 300 baud

Question 74 G1D04 [97.509(3)(i)]
Which of the following is a requirement for administering a Technician class license examination?
A. At least three General class or higher VEs must observe the examination
B. At least two General class or higher VEs must be present
C. At least two General class or higher VEs must be present, but only one need be Amateur Extra class
D. At least three VEs of Technician class or higher must observe the examination

Question 75 G2C08 
What prosign is sent to indicate the end of a formal message when using CW?
A. SK
B. BK
C. AR
D. KN

Question 76 G2E03 
What symptoms may result from other signals interfering with a PACTOR or WINMOR transmission?
A. Frequent retries or timeouts
B. Long pauses in message transmission
C. Failure to establish a connection between stations
D. All these choices are correct

Question 77 G2E05 
What is the standard sideband used to generate a JT65, JT9, or FT8 digital signal when using AFSK in any amateur band?
A. LSB
B. USB
C. DSB
D. SSB

Question 78 G2D11 
Which of the following is typical of the lower HF frequencies during the summer?
A. Poor propagation at any time of day
B. World-wide propagation during the daylight hours
C. Heavy distortion on signals due to photon absorption
D. High levels of atmospheric noise or “static”

Question 79 G2E09 
How do you join a contact between two stations using the PACTOR protocol?
A. Send broadcast packets containing your call sign while in MONITOR mode
B. Transmit a steady carrier until the PACTOR protocol times out and disconnects
C. Joining an existing contact is not possible, PACTOR connections are limited to two stations
D. Send a NAK response continuously so that the sending station must stand by

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Questions for Tuesday May 11, 2021
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Question 80 G5B01
What dB change represents a factor of two increase or decrease in power?
A. Approximately 2 dB
B. Approximately 3 dB
C. Approximately 6 dB
D. Approximately 12 dB

Question 81 G5B02 
How does the total current relate to the individual currents in each branch of a purely resistive parallel circuit?
A. It equals the average of each branch current
B. It decreases as more parallel branches are added to the circuit
C. It equals the sum of the currents through each branch
D. It is the sum of the reciprocal of each individual voltage drop

Question 82 G5A06
How does a capacitor react to AC?
A. As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance decreases
B. As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance increases
C. As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance increases
D. As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance decreases

Question 83 G5A08 
What is one reason to use an impedance matching transformer?
A. To minimize transmitter power output
B. To maximize the transfer of power
C. To reduce power supply ripple
D. To minimize radiation resistance

Question 84 G5B03  
How many watts of electrical power are used if 400 VDC is supplied to an 800 ohm load?
A. 0.5 watts
B. 200 watts
C. 400 watts
D. 3200 watts

Question 85 G7B11  
For which of the following modes is a Class C power stage appropriate for amplifying a modulated signal?
A. SSB
B. FM
C. AM
D. All these choices are correct

Question 86 G7B08  
How is the efficiency of an RF power amplifier determined?
A. Divide the DC input power by the DC output power
B. Divide the RF output power by the DC input power
C. Multiply the RF input power by the reciprocal of the RF output power
D. Add the RF input power to the DC output power

Question 87 G7B04 
Which of the following describes the function of a two input NOR gate?
A. Output is high when either or both inputs are low
B. Output is high only when both inputs are high
C. Output is low when either or both inputs are high
D. Output is low only when both inputs are high

Question 88 G7B06  
What is a shift register?
A. A clocked array of circuits that passes data in steps along the array
B. An array of operational amplifiers used for tri-state arithmetic operations
C. A digital mixer
D. An analog mixer

Question 89 G7B05  
How many states does a 3-bit binary counter have?
A. 3
B. 6
C. 8
D. 16

Question 90 G7B02  
Which of these classes of amplifiers has the highest efficiency?
A. Class A
B. Class B
C. Class AB
D. Class C

Question 91 G7A08  
Which of the following is an advantage of a switchmode power supply as compared to a linear power supply?
A. Faster switching time makes higher output voltage possible
B. Fewer circuit components are required
C. High-frequency operation allows the use of smaller components
D. All these choices are correct

Question 92 G7A09  
Which symbol in figure G7-1 represents a field effect transistor?
A. Symbol 2
B. Symbol 5
C. Symbol 1
D. Symbol 4

Question 93 G7A10  
Which symbol in figure G7-1 represents a Zener diode?
A. Symbol 4
B. Symbol 1
C. Symbol 11
D. Symbol 5

Question 94 G7A11  
Which symbol in figure G7-1 represents an NPN junction transistor?
A. Symbol 1
B. Symbol 2
C. Symbol 7
D. Symbol 11

Question 95 G7A12  
Which symbol in Figure G7-1 represents a solid core transformer?
A. Symbol 4
B. Symbol 7
C. Symbol 6
D. Symbol 1

Question 96 G7A13  
Which symbol in Figure G7-1 represents a tapped inductor?
A. Symbol 7
B. Symbol 11
C. Symbol 6
D. Symbol 1