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Questions for the net on 5/18/21
Note: Correct answers are in bold
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Question 1 E1A01 [97.305, 97.307(b)]
Which of the following carrier frequencies is illegal for LSB AFSK emissions on the 17 meter band RTTY and data segment of 18.068 to 18.110 MHz?
A. 18.068 MHz
B. 18.100 MHz
C. 18.107 MHz
D. 18.110 MHz
Question 2 E1B01 [97.3]
Which of the following constitutes a spurious emission?
A. An amateur station transmission made without the proper call sign identification
B. A signal transmitted to prevent its detection by any station other than the intended recipient
C. Any transmitted signal that unintentionally interferes with another licensed radio station
D. An emission outside the signal’s necessary bandwidth that can be reduced or eliminated without affecting the information transmitted
Question 3 E1C01 [97.303]
What is the maximum bandwidth for a data emission on 60 meters?
A. 60 Hz
B. 170 Hz
C. 1.5 kHz
D. 2.8 kHz
Question 4 E1D01 [97.3]
What is the definition of telemetry?
A. One-way transmission of measurements at a distance from the measuring instrument
B. Two-way transmissions in excess of 1000 feet
C. Two-way transmissions of data
D. One-way transmission that initiates, modifies, or terminates the functions of a device at a distance
Question 5 E1E01 [97.527]
For which types of out-of-pocket expenses do the Part 97 rules state that VEs and VECs may be reimbursed?
A. Preparing, processing, administering, and coordinating an examination for an amateur radio operator license
B. Teaching an amateur operator license examination preparation course
C. No expenses are authorized for reimbursement
D. Providing amateur operator license examination preparation training materials
Question 6 E1F01 [97.305]
On what frequencies are spread spectrum transmissions permitted?
A. Only on amateur frequencies above 50 MHz
B. Only on amateur frequencies above 222 MHz
C. Only on amateur frequencies above 420 MHz
D. Only on amateur frequencies above 144 MHz
Question 7 E2A01
What is the direction of an ascending pass for an amateur satellite?
A. From west to east
B. From east to west
C. From south to north
D. From north to south
Question 8 E1B02 [97.307(f)(2)]
Which of the following is an acceptable bandwidth for Digital Radio Mondiale (DRM) based voice or SSTV digital transmissions made on the HF amateur bands?
A. 3 kHz
B. 10 kHz
C. 15 kHz
D. 20 kHz
Question 9 E2C01
What indicator is required to be used by U.S.-licensed operators when operating a station via remote control and the remote transmitter is located in the U.S.?
A. / followed by the USPS two-letter abbreviation for the state in which the remote station is located
B. /R# where # is the district of the remote station
C. / followed by the ARRL Section of the remote station
D. No additional indicator is required
Question 10 E2D01
Which of the following digital modes is designed for meteor scatter communications?
A. WSPR
B. MSK144
C. Hellschreiber
D. APRS
Question 11 E2E02
What do the letters FEC mean as they relate to digital operation?
A. Forward Error Correction
B. First Error Correction
C. Fatal Error Correction
D. Final Error Correction
Question 12 E3A01
What is the approximate maximum separation measured along the surface of the Earth between two stations communicating by EME?
A. 500 miles, if the moon is at perigee
B. 2000 miles, if the moon is at apogee
C. 5000 miles, if the moon is at perigee
D. 12,000 miles, if the moon is visible by both stations
Question 13 E3B01
What is transequatorial propagation?
A. Propagation between two mid-latitude points at approximately the same distance north and south of the magnetic equator
B. Propagation between points located on the magnetic equator
C. Propagation between a point on the equator and its antipodal point
D. Propagation between points at the same latitude
Question 14 E3C01
What does the radio communication term “ray tracing” describe?
A. The process in which an electronic display presents a pattern
B. Modeling a radio wave’s path through the ionosphere
C. Determining the radiation pattern from an array of antennas
D. Evaluating high voltage sources for x-rays
Question 15 E4A01
Which of the following limits the highest frequency signal that can be accurately displayed on a digital oscilloscope?
A. Sampling rate of the analog-to-digital converter
B. Amount of memory
C. Q of the circuit
D. All these choices are correct
Question 16 E4B01
Which of the following factors most affects the accuracy of a frequency counter?
A. Input attenuator accuracy
B. Time base accuracy
C. Decade divider accuracy
D. Temperature coefficient of the logic
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Questions for the net on 5/25/21
Note: Correct answers are in bold
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Question 17 E4C01
What is an effect of excessive phase noise in a receiver’s local oscillator?
A. It limits the receiver’s ability to receive strong signals
B. It can affect the receiver’s frequency calibration
C. It decreases receiver third-order intercept point
D. It can combine with strong signals on nearby frequencies to generate interference
Question 18 E4D01
What is meant by the blocking dynamic range of a receiver?
A. The difference in dB between the noise floor and the level of an incoming signal that will cause 1 dB of gain compression
B. The minimum difference in dB between the levels of two FM signals that will cause one signal to block the other
C. The difference in dB between the noise floor and the third-order intercept point
D. The minimum difference in dB between two signals which produce third-order intermodulation products greater than the noise floor
Question 19 E4E01
What problem can occur when using an automatic notch filter (ANF) to remove interfering carriers while receiving CW signals?
A. Removal of the CW signal as well as the interfering carrier
B. Any nearby signal passing through the DSP system will overwhelm the desired signal
C. Received CW signals will appear to be modulated at the DSP clock frequency
D. Ringing in the DSP filter will completely remove the spaces between the CW characters
Question 20 E5A01
What can cause the voltage across reactances in a series RLC circuit to be higher than the voltage applied to the entire circuit?
A. Resonance
B. Capacitance
C. Conductance
D. Resistance
Question 21 E5B01
What is the term for the time required for the capacitor in an RC circuit to be charged to 63.2% of the applied voltage or to discharge to 36.8% of its initial voltage?
A. An exponential rate of one
B. One time constant
C. One exponential period
D. A time factor of one
Question 22 E5C01
Which of the following represents capacitive reactance in rectangular notation?
A. –jX
B. +jX
C. Delta
D. Omega
Question 23 E5D01
What is the result of skin effect?
A. As frequency increases, RF current flows in a thinner layer of the conductor, closer to the surface
B. As frequency decreases, RF current flows in a thinner layer of the conductor, closer to the surface
C. Thermal effects on the surface of the conductor increase the impedance
D. Thermal effects on the surface of the conductor decrease the impedance
Question 24 E6A01
In what application is gallium arsenide used as a semiconductor material?
A. In high-current rectifier circuits
B. In high-power audio circuits
C. In microwave circuits
D. In very low-frequency RF circuits
Question 25 E6B01
What is the most useful characteristic of a Zener diode?
A. A constant current drop under conditions of varying voltage
B. A constant voltage drop under conditions of varying current
C. A negative resistance region
D. An internal capacitance that varies with the applied voltage
Question 26 E6C01
What is the function of hysteresis in a comparator?
A. To prevent input noise from causing unstable output signals
B. To allow the comparator to be used with AC input signals
C. To cause the output to change states continually
D. To increase the sensitivity
Question 27 E6D01
Why should core saturation of an impedance matching transformer be avoided?
A. Harmonics and distortion could result
B. Magnetic flux would increase with frequency
C. RF susceptance would increase
D. Temporary changes of the core permeability could result
Question 28 E6E01
Why is gallium arsenide (GaAs) useful for semiconductor devices operating at UHF and higher frequencies?
A. Higher noise figures
B. Higher electron mobility
C. Lower junction voltage drop
D. Lower transconductance
Question 29 E6F01
What absorbs the energy from light falling on a photovoltaic cell?
A. Protons
B. Photons
C. Electrons
D. Holes
Question 30 E7A01
Which circuit is bistable?
A. An AND gate
B. An OR gate
C. A flip-flop
D. A bipolar amplifier
Question 31 E7B01
For what portion of the signal cycle does each active element in a push-pull Class AB amplifier conduct?
A. More than 180 degrees but less than 360 degrees
B. Exactly 180 degrees
C. The entire cycle
D. Less than 180 degrees
Question 32 E7C01
How are the capacitors and inductors of a low-pass filter Pi-network arranged between the network’s input and output?
A. Two inductors are in series between the input and output, and a capacitor is connected between the two inductors and ground
B. Two capacitors are in series between the input and output, and an inductor is connected between the two capacitors and ground
C. An inductor is connected between the input and ground, another inductor is connected between the output and ground, and a capacitor is connected between the input and output
D. A capacitor is connected between the input and ground, another capacitor is connected between the output and ground, and an inductor is connected between input and output
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Questions for the net on 6/01/21
Note: Correct answers are in bold
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Question 33 E7D01
How does a linear electronic voltage regulator work?
A. It has a ramp voltage as its output
B. It eliminates the need for a pass transistor
C. The control element duty cycle is proportional to the line or load conditions
D. The conduction of a control element is varied to maintain a constant output voltage
Question 34 E7E01
Which of the following can be used to generate FM phone emissions?
A. A balanced modulator on the audio amplifier
B. A reactance modulator on the oscillator
C. A reactance modulator on the final amplifier
D. A balanced modulator on the oscillator
Question 35 E7F01
What is meant by direct digital conversion as applied to software defined radios?
A. Software is converted from source code to object code during operation of the receiver
B. Incoming RF is converted to a control voltage for a voltage controlled oscillator
C. Incoming RF is digitized by an analog-to-digital converter without being mixed with a local oscillator signal
D. A switching mixer is used to generate I and Q signals directly from the RF input
Question 36 E7G01
What is the typical output impedance of an op-amp?
A. Very low
B. Very high
C. 100 ohms
D. 1000 ohms
Question 37 E7H01
What are three oscillator circuits used in amateur radio equipment?
A. Taft, Pierce and negative feedback
B. Pierce, Fenner and Beane
C. Taft, Hartley and Pierce
D. Colpitts, Hartley and Pierce
Question 38 E8A01
What is the name of the process that shows that a square wave is made up of a sine wave plus all its odd harmonics?
A. Fourier analysis
B. Vector analysis
C. Numerical analysis
D. Differential analysis
Question 39 E8B01
What is the modulation index of an FM signal?
A. The ratio of frequency deviation to modulating signal frequency
B. The ratio of modulating signal amplitude to frequency deviation
C. The type of modulation used by the transmitter
D. The bandwidth of the transmitted signal divided by the modulating signal frequency
Question 40 E8C01
How is Forward Error Correction implemented?
A. By the receiving station repeating each block of three data characters
B. By transmitting a special algorithm to the receiving station along with the data characters
C. By transmitting extra data that may be used to detect and correct transmission errors
D. By varying the frequency shift of the transmitted signal according to a predefined algorithm
Question 41 E8D01
Why are received spread spectrum signals resistant to interference?
A. Signals not using the spread spectrum algorithm are suppressed in the receiver
B. The high power used by a spread spectrum transmitter keeps its signal from being easily overpowered
C. The receiver is always equipped with a digital blanker
D. If interference is detected by the receiver it will signal the transmitter to change frequencies
Question 42 E9A01
What is an isotropic antenna?
A. A grounded antenna used to measure Earth conductivity
B. A horizontally polarized antenna used to compare Yagi antennas
C. A theoretical, omnidirectional antenna used as a reference for antenna gain
D. A spacecraft antenna used to direct signals toward Earth
Question 43 E9B01
In the antenna radiation pattern shown in Figure E9-1, what is the beamwidth?
A. 75 degrees
B. 50 degrees
C. 25 degrees
D. 30 degrees
Question 44 E9C01
What is the radiation pattern of two 1/4-wavelength vertical antennas spaced 1/2-wavelength apart and fed 180 degrees out of phase?
A. Cardioid
B. Omni-directional
C. A figure-8 broadside to the axis of the array
D. A figure-8 oriented along the axis of the array
Question 45 E9D01
How much does the gain of an ideal parabolic dish antenna change when the operating frequency is doubled?
A. 2 dB
B. 3 dB
C. 4 dB
D. 6 dB
Question 46 E9E01
What system matches a higher-impedance transmission line to a lower-impedance antenna by connecting the line to the driven element in two places spaced a fraction of a wavelength each side of element center?
A. The gamma matching system
B. The delta matching system
C. The omega matching system
D. The stub matching system
Question 47 E9F01
What is the velocity factor of a transmission line?
A. The ratio of the characteristic impedance of the line to the terminating impedance
B. The index of shielding for coaxial cable
C. The velocity of the wave in the transmission line multiplied by the velocity of light in a vacuum
D. The velocity of the wave in the transmission line divided by the velocity of light in a vacuum
Question 48 E9G01
Which of the following can be calculated using a Smith chart?
A. Impedance along transmission lines
B. Radiation resistance
C. Antenna radiation pattern
D. Radio propagation
Question 49 E9H01
When constructing a Beverage antenna, which of the following factors should be included in the design to achieve good performance at the desired frequency?
A. Its overall length must not exceed 1/4 wavelength
B. It must be mounted more than 1 wavelength above ground
C. It should be configured as a four-sided loop
D. It should be one or more wavelengths long
Question 50 E0A01
What is the primary function of an external earth connection or ground rod?
A. Reduce received noise
B. Lightning protection
C. Reduce RF current flow between pieces of equipment
D. Reduce RFI to telephones and home entertainment systems
Question 51 E0A02
When evaluating RF exposure levels from your station at a neighbor’s home, what must you do?
A. Ensure signals from your station are less than the controlled Maximum Permitted Exposure (MPE) limits
B. Ensure signals from your station are less than the uncontrolled Maximum Permitted Exposure (MPE) limits
C. Ensure signals from your station are less than the controlled Maximum Permitted Emission (MPE) limits
D. Ensure signals from your station are less than the uncontrolled Maximum Permitted Emission (MPE) limits
Question 52 E0A03
Over what range of frequencies are the FCC human body RF exposure limits most restrictive?
A. 300 kHz to 3 MHz
B. 3 to 30 MHz
C. 30 to 300 MHz
D. 300 to 3000 MHz
Question 53 E0A04
When evaluating a site with multiple transmitters operating at the same time, the operators and licensees of which transmitters are responsible for mitigating over-exposure situations?
A. Only the most powerful transmitter
B. Only commercial transmitters
C. Each transmitter that produces 5 percent or more of its MPE limit in areas where the total MPE limit is exceeded.
D. Each transmitter operating with a duty cycle greater than 50 percent
Question 54 E0A05
What is one of the potential hazards of operating in the amateur radio microwave bands?
A. Microwaves are ionizing radiation
B. The high gain antennas commonly used can result in high exposure levels
C. Microwaves often travel long distances by ionospheric reflection
D. The extremely high frequency energy can damage the joints of antenna structures